If the outcome of some event is know beforehand -- and "known" in such a way that it's impossible for events to proceed in any other manner than what is known -- can free will also exist? In what way can you have the freedom to decide what you will do if it is already known what you will do? In what way are you free to decide what you will do if it's impossible for you to act in any way other than one particular way?
A forum member writes:
If someone knows the OUTCOME of an event, without necessarily knowing the REASONING or HOW that led to that choice....would that invalidate free will? Is knowing the outcome alone enough to invalidate free will? Or is free will only invalidated when one knows all the factors that leads to that choice?
A common Christian argument in defense of the existence of evil in the world revolves around free will: God values our free will so much that even the existence of evil caused by free will is better than an absence of evil and an absence of free will. I think it's unavoidable that the existence of free will is necessary for Christianity. But at the same time, so is the omniscience of God, isn't it?
It's difficult to see how omniscience wouldn't conflict with free will -- if free will exists, it must entail at least the possibility of making one choice over other (even if it's unlikely). Add your thoughts to the comments here or join the discussion in the forum.
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